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NCLEX Exam NCLEX-PN

National Council Licensure Examination(NCLEX-PN)

Version: 5.0

[ Total Questions: 725 ]

Topic break down

Topic No. of Questions

Topic 1: Questions Set A 100

Topic 2: Questions Set B 100

Topic 3: Questions Set C 100

Topic 4: Questions Set D 91

Topic 5: Questions Set E 91

Topic 6: Questions Set F 243




Topic 1, Questions Set A

Question No : 1 - (Topic 1)

Teaching the client with gonorrhea how to prevent reinfection and further spread is an example of:

A. primary prevention.

B. secondary prevention.

C. tertiary prevention.

D. primary health care prevention.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Secondary prevention targets the reduction of disease prevalence and disease morbidity through early diagnosis and treatment.Physiological Adaptation

Question No : 2 - (Topic 1)

Which of the following foods is a complete protein?

A. corn

B. eggs

C. peanutsDsunflower seeds

Answer: B

Explanation:

Eggs are a complete protein. The remaining options are incomplete proteins.Health

Promotion and

Maintenance

Question No : 3 - (Topic 1)

Broccoli, oranges, dark greens, and dark yellow vegetables can be eaten to:

A. supplement vitamin pills.

B. balance body molecules.

C. cure many diseases.

D. help improve body defenses.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Controversy over what types of food to eat and not eat is still under investigation. Certain foods can help

improve body defenses to possibly prevent certain diseases.Nonpharmacological Therapies

Question No : 4 - (Topic 1)

The major electrolytes in the extracellular fluid are:

A. potassium and chloride.

B. potassium and phosphate.

C. sodium and chloride.

D. sodium and phosphate.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Sodium and chloride are the major electrolytes in the extracellular fluid.Physiological Adaptation

Question No : 5 - (Topic 1)

Which of the following nursing diagnoses might be appropriate as Parkinson’s disease progresses and complications develop?

A. Impaired Physical Mobility

B. Dysreflexia

C. Hypothermia

D. Impaired Dentition

Answer: A

Explanation:

The client with Parkinson’s disease can develop a shuffling gait and rigidity, causing impaired physical mobility. The other diagnoses do not necessarily relate to a client with Parkinson’s disease. Reduction of Risk Potential



Question No : 6 - (Topic 1)

Which of the following is an inappropriate item to include in planning care for a severely neutropenic client?

A. Transfuse netrophils (granulocytes) to prevent infection.

B. Exclude raw vegetables from the diet.

C. Avoid administering rectal suppositories.

D. Prohibit vases of fresh flowers and plants in the client’s room.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Granulocyte transfusion is not indicated to prevent infection. Produced in the bone marrow, granulocytes normally comprise 70% of all WBCs. They are subdivided into three types based on staining properties: neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils. They can be beneficial in a selected population of infected, severely granulocytopenic clients (less than 500/mm3) who do not respond to antibiotic therapy and who are expected

to experience prolonged suppression of granulocyte production.Physiological Adaptation

Question No : 7 - (Topic 1)

A primary belief of psychiatric mental health nursing is:

A. most people have the potential to change and grow.

B. every person is worthy of dignity and respect.

C. human needs are individual to each person.

D. some behaviors have no meaning and cannot be understood.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Every person is worthy of dignity and respect. Every person has the potential to change and grow. All people have basic human needs in common with others. All behavior has meaning and can be understood from the client’s perspective.Psychosocial Integrity

Question No : 8 - (Topic 1)

A teenage client is admitted to the hospital because of acetaminophen (Tylenol) overdose. Overdoses of acetaminophen can precipitate life-threatening abnormalities in which of the following organs?

A. lungs

B. liver

C. kidneys

D. adrenal glands

Answer: B

Explanation:

Acetaminophen is extensively metabolized in the liver. Choices 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect because prolonged use of acetaminophen might result in an increased risk of renal dysfunction, but a single overdose does not precipitate life-threatening problems in the respiratory system, renal system, or adrenal glands.Pharmacological

Therapies

Question No : 9 - (Topic 1)

All of the following factors, when identified in the history of a family, are correlated with poverty except:

A. high infant mortality rate.

B. frequent use of Emergency Departments.

C. consultation with folk healers.

D. low incidence of dental problems.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Dental problems are prevalent because of the lack of preventive care and access to care. High infant mortality is one of the most significant problems correlated with poverty. Pregnant women who do not have access to care might come to the Emergency Department when in labor. Those in poverty are likely to use Emergency

Departments because they may not be turned away. Those in poverty might also turn to folk healers or other persons in their community for care who might be easier to access and might not demand payment.Health

Promotion and Maintenance

Question No : 10 - (Topic 1)

Acyclovir is the drug of choice for:

A. HIV.

B. HSV 1 and 2 and VZV.

C. CMV.

D. influenza A viruses.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Acyclovir (Zovirax) is specific for treatment of herpes virus infections. There is no cure for herpes. Acyclovir is excreted unchanged in the urine and therefore must be used cautiously in the presence of renal impairment.

Drugs that treat herpes inhibit viral DNA replication by competing with viral substrates to form shorter, ineffective DNA chains.Physiological Adaptation

Question No : 11 - (Topic 1)

Ashley and her boyfriend Chris, both 19 years old, are transported to the Emergency Department after being involved in a motorcycle accident. Chris is badly hurt, but Ashley has no apparent injuries, though she appears confused and has trouble focusing on what is going on around her. She complains of dizziness and nausea. Her pulse is rapid, and she is hyperventilating. The nurse should assess Ashley’s level of anxiety as:

A. mild.

B. moderate.

C. severe.

D. panic.

Answer: C

Explanation:

The person whose anxiety is assessed as severe is unable to solve problems and has a poor grasp of what’s

happening in his or her environment. Somatic symptoms such as those described by Ashley are usually present.

Vital sign changes are observed. The individual with mild anxiety might report being mildly uncomfortable and might even find performance enhanced. The individual with moderate anxiety grasps less information about the situation, has some difficulty problem-solving, and might have mild changes in vital signs. The individual in panic demonstrates markedly disturbed behavior and might lose touch with reality.Psychosocial Integrity

Question No : 12 - (Topic 1)

Which of the following methods of contraception is able to reduce the transmission of HIV and other STDs?

A. intrauterine device (IUD)

B. Norplant

C. oral contraceptives

D. vaginal sponge

Answer: D

Explanation:

The vaginal sponge is a barrier method of contraception that, when used with foam or jelly contraception, reduces the transmission of HIV and other STDs as well as reducing the risk of pregnancy. IUDs, Norplant, and oral contraceptives can prevent pregnancy but not the transmission HIV and STDs. Clients using the contraceptive methods in Choices 1, 2, and 3 should be counseled to use a chemical or barrier contraceptive to decrease transmission of HIV or STDs. Health Promotion and Maintenance

Question No : 13 - (Topic 1)

Which fetal heart monitor pattern can indicate cord compression?

A. variable decelerations

B. early decelerations

C. bradycardia

D. tachycardia

Answer: A

Explanation:

Variable decelerations can be related to cord compression. The other patterns are not.Reduction of Risk

Potential

Question No : 14 - (Topic 1)

The nurse teaching about preventable diseases should emphasize the importance of getting the following vaccines:

A. human papilloma virus, genital herpes, measles.

B. pneumonia, HIV, mumps.

C. syphilis, gonorrhea, pneumonia.

D. polio, pertussis, measles.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Vaccines are one of the most effective methods of preventing and controlling certain communicable diseases.

The smallpox vaccine is not currently in use because the smallpox virus has been declared eradicated from the world’s population. Diseases such as polio, diphtheria, pertussis, and measles are mostly controlled by routine childhood immunization. They have not, however, been eradicated, so children need to be immunized against these diseases.Physiological Adaptation

Question No : 15 - (Topic 1)

Which of the following conditions is mammography used to detect?

A. pain

B. tumor

C. edema

D. epilepsy

Answer: B

Explanation:

Mammography is used to detect tumors or cysts in the breasts, not the other conditions.Reduction of Risk

Potential

Question No : 16 - (Topic 1)

When the nurse is determining the appropriate size of an oropharyngeal airway to insert, what part of a client’s body should she measure?

A. corner of the mouth to the tragus of the ear

B. corner of the eye to the top of the ear

C. tip of the chin to the sternum

D. tip of the nose to the earlobe

Answer: A

Explanation:

An oropharyngeal airway is measured from the corner of the client’s mouth, to the tragus of the ear.

Reduction of Risk Potential

Question No : 17 - (Topic 1)

Which sign might the nurse see in a client with a high ammonia level?

A. coma

B. edema

C. hypoxia

D. polyuria

Answer: A

Explanation:

Coma might be seen in a client with a high ammonia level.Reduction of Risk Potential

Question No : 18 - (Topic 1)

What do the following ABG values indicate: pH 7.38, PO2 78 mmHg, PCO2 36mmHg, and

HCO3 24 mEq/L?

A. metabolic alkalosis

B. homeostasis

C. respiratory acidosis

D. respiratory alkalosis

Answer: B

Explanation:

These ABG values are within normal limits. Choices 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect because the ABG values indicate none of these acid-base disturbances.Physiological Adaptation

Question No : 19 - (Topic 1)

Which of the following is the primary force in sex education in a child’s life?

A. school nurse

B. peers

C. parents

D. media

Answer: C

Explanation:

Parents are the primary force in sex education in a child’s life. The school nurse is involved with formal sex education and counseling. Peers become more important in sex education during adolescence but might lack correct information. The media play a powerful role in what children learn about sex through movies, TV, and video games.Health Promotion and Maintenance

Question No : 20 - (Topic 1)

The nurse is assessing the dental status of an 18-month-old child. How many teeth should the nurse expect to examine?

A. 6

B. 8

C. 12

D. 16

Answer: C

Explanation:

In general, children begin dentition around 6 months of age. During the first 2 years of life, a quick guide to the number of teeth a child should have is as follows: Subtract the number 6 from the number of months in the age of the child. In this example, the child is 18 months old, so the formula is 18 – 6 = 12. An 18-month-old child should have approximately 12 teeth. Health Promotion and Maintenance

Question No : 21 - (Topic 1)

Which of the following medications is a serotonin antagonist that might be used to relieve nausea and vomiting?

A. metoclopramide (Reglan)

B. onedansetron (Zofran)

C. hydroxyzine (Vistaril)

D. prochlorperazine (Compazine)

Answer: B

Explanation:

Zofran is a serotonin antagonist that can be used to relieve nausea and vomiting. The other medications can be used for nausea and vomiting, but they have different mechanisms of action. Physiological Adaptation

Question No : 22 - (Topic 1)

A client is complaining of difficulty walking secondary to a mass in the foot. The nurse should document this finding as:

A. plantar fasciitis.

B. hallux valgus.

C. hammertoe.

D. Morton’s neuroma.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Morton’s neuroma is a small mass or tumor in a digital nerve of the foot. Hallux valgus is referred to in lay terms as abunion.Hammertoe is where one toe is cocked up over another toe. Plantar fasciitis is an inflammation

of, or pain in, the arch of the foot. Basic Care and Comfort

Question No : 23 - (Topic 1)

For a client with suspected appendicitis, the nurse should expect to find abdominal tenderness in which quadrant?

A. upper right

B. upper left

C. lower right

D. lower left

Answer: C

Explanation:

The nurse should expect to find abdominal tenderness in the lower-right quadrant in a client with appendicitis. Physiological Adaptation

Question No : 24 - (Topic 1)

Assessment of a client with a cast should include:

A. capillary refill, warm toes, no discomfort.

B. posterior tibial pulses, warm toes.

C. moist skin essential, pain threshold.

D. discomfort of the metacarpals.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Assessment for adequate circulation is necessary. Signs of impaired circulation include slow capillary refill, cool fingers or toes, and pain. Basic Care and Comfort

Question No : 25 - (Topic 1)

Which of the following injuries, if demonstrated by a client entering the Emergency

Department, is the highest priority?

A. open leg fracture

B. open head injury

C. stab wound to the chest

D. traumatic amputation of a thumb

Answer: C

Explanation:

A stab wound to the chest might result in lung collapse and mediastinal shift that, if untreated, could lead to death. Treatment of an obstructed airway or a chest wound is a higher priority than hemorrhage. The principle of

ABC (airway, breathing, and circulation) prioritizes care decisions.Physiological Adaptation

Question No : 26 - (Topic 1)

Why must the nurse be careful not to cut through or disrupt any tears, holes, bloodstains, or dirt present on the clothing of a client who has experienced trauma?

A. The clothing is the property of another and must be treated with care.

B. Such care facilitates repair and salvage of the clothing.

C. The clothing of a trauma victim is potential evidence with legal implications.

D. Such care decreases trauma to the family members receiving the clothing.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Trauma in any client, living or dead, has potential legal and/or forensic implications.

Clothing, patterns of stains, and debris are sources of potential evidence and must be preserved. Nurses must be aware of state and local regulations that require mandatory reporting of cases of suspected child and elder abuse, accidental death, and suicide. Each Emergency Department has written policies and procedures to assist nurses and other health care providers in making appropriate reports. Physical evidence is real, tangible, or latent matter that can be visualized, measured, or analyzed. Emergency Department nurses can be called on to collect evidence. Health care facilities have policies governing the collection of forensic evidence. The chain of evidence custody must be followed to ensure the integrity and credibility of the evidence. The chain of evidence custody is the pathway that evidence follows from the time it is collected until is has served its purpose in the legal investigation of an incident. Physiological Adaptation

Question No : 27 - (Topic 1)

Which of the following statements, if made by the parents of a newborn, does not indicate a need for further teaching about cord care?

A. “I should put alcohol on my baby’s cord 3–4 times a day.”

B. “I should put the baby’s diaper on so that it covers the cord.”

C. “I should call the physician if the cord becomes dark.”

D. “I should wash my hands before and after I take care of the cord.”

Answer: D

Explanation:

Parents should be taught to wash their hands before and after providing cord care. This prevents transferring pathogens to and from the cord. Folding the diaper below the cord exposes the cord to air and allows for drying.

It also prevents wet or soiled diapers from coming into contact with the cord. Current recommendations include cleaning the area around the cord 3–4 times a day with a cotton swab but do not include putting alcohol or other antimicrobials on the cord. It is normal for the cord to turn dark as it dries. Health Promotion and Maintenance

Question No : 28 - (Topic 1)

A middle-aged woman tells the nurse that she has been experiencing irregular menses for the past six months. The nurse should assess the woman for other symptoms of:

A. climacteric.

B. menopause.

C. perimenopause.

D. postmenopause.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Perimenopause refers to a period of time in which hormonal changes occur gradually, ovarian function diminishes, and menses become irregular. Perimenopause lasts approximately five years. Climacteric is a term applied to the period of life in which physiologic changes occur and result in cessation of a woman’s reproductive ability and lessened sexual activity in males. The term applies to both genders. Climacteric and menopause are interchangeable terms when used for females. Menopause is the period when permanent cessation of menses has occurred. Postmenopause refers to the period after the changes accompanying menopause are complete.Health

Promotion and Maintenance

Question No : 29 - (Topic 1)

Which of the following might be an appropriate nursing diagnosis for an epileptic client?

A. Dysreflexia

B. Risk for Injury

C. Urinary Retention

D. Unbalanced Nutrition

Answer: B

Explanation:

The epileptic client is at risk for injury due to the complications of seizure activity, such as possible head trauma associated with a fall. The other choices are not related to the question.Reduction of Risk Potential

Question No : 30 - (Topic 1)

Which of the following diseases or conditions is least likely to be associated with increased potential for bleeding?

A. metastatic liver cancer

B. gram-negative septicemia

C. pernicious anemia

D. iron-deficiency anemia

Answer: C

Explanation:

Pernicious anemia results from vitamin B12 deficiency due to lack of intrinsic factor. This can result from inadequate dietary intake, faulty absorption from the GI tract due to a lack of secretion of intrinsic factor normally produced by gastric mucosal cells and certain disorders of the small intestine that impair absorption.

The nurse should instruct the client in the need for lifelong replacement of vitamin B12, as well as the need for

folic acid, rest, diet, and support.Physiological Adaptation

Question No : 31 - (Topic 1)

When a client needs oxygen therapy, what is the highest flow rate that oxygen can be delivered via nasal cannula?

A. 2 liters/minute

B. 4 liters/minute

C. 6 liters/minute

D. 8 liters/minute

Answer: C

Explanation:

The highest flow rate that oxygen can be delivered via nasal cannula is 6 liters/minute. Higher flow rates must be delivered by mask.Reduction of Risk Potential

Question No : 32 - (Topic 1)

The kind of man who beats a woman is:

A. from a minority culture in a low-income group.

B. from a majority culture in a middle-income group.

C. one who was never allowed to compete as a child.

D. from any walk of life, race, income group, or profession.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Batterers cannot be predicted by demographic features related to age, ethnicity, race, religious denomination, education, socioeconomic status, or class. Ninety-five percent of domestic abuse cases involve male perpetrators and female victims.Psychosocial Integrity

Question No : 33 - (Topic 1)

All of the following should be performed when fetal heart monitoring indicates fetal distress except:

A. increase maternal fluids.

B. administer oxygen.

C. decrease maternal fluids.

D. turn the mother.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Decreasing maternal fluids is the only intervention that shouldnotbe performed when fetal distress is indicated.Reduction of Risk Potential

Question No : 34 - (Topic 1)

What interpersonal relief behavior is Ashley using?

A. acting out

B. somatizing

C. withdrawal

D. problem-solving

Answer: B

Explanation:

Somatizing means one experiences an emotional conflict as a physical symptom. Ashley manifests several physical symptoms associated with severe anxiety. Acting out refers to behaviors such as anger, crying, laughter, and physical or verbal abuse. Withdrawal is a reaction in which psychic energy is withdrawn from the environment and focused on the self in response to anxiety. Problem-solving takes place when anxiety is identified and the unmet need is met. Psychosocial Integrity

Question No : 35 - (Topic 1)

A client comes to the clinic for assessment of his physical status and guidelines for starting a weight-reduction diet. The client’s weight is 216 pounds and his height is 66 inches. The nurse identifies the BMI (body mass index) as:

A. within normal limits, so a weight-reduction diet is unnecessary.

B. lower than normal, so education about nutrient-dense foods is needed.

C. indicating obesity because the BMI is 35.

D. indicating overweight status because the BMI is 27.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Obesity is defined by a BMI of 30 or more with no co-morbid conditions. It is calculated by utilizing a chart or nomogram that plots height and weight. This client’s BMI is 35, indicating obesity. Goals of diet therapy are

aimed at decreasing weight and increasing activity to healthy levels based on a client’s BMI, activity status, and energy requirements. Physiological Adaptation

Question No : 36 - (Topic 1)

Which of the following instructions should the nurse give a client who will be undergoing mammography?

A. Be sure to use underarm deodorant.

B. Do not use underarm deodorant.

C. Do not eat or drink after midnight.

D. Have a friend drive you home.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Underarm deodorant should not be used because it might cause confusing shadows on the X-ray film. There are no restrictions on food or fluid intake. No sedation is used, so the client can drive herself home.Reduction of

Risk Potential

Question No : 37 - (Topic 1)

Teaching about the need to avoid foods high in potassium is most important for which client?

A. a client receiving diuretic therapy

B. a client with an ileostomy

C. a client with metabolic alkalosis

D. a client with renal disease

Answer: D

Explanation:

Clients with renal disease are predisposed to hyperkalemia and should avoid foods high in potassium.

Choices 1, 2, and 3 are incorrect because clients receiving diuretics with ileostomy or with metabolic alkalosis are at risk for hypokalemia and should be encouraged to eat foods high in potassium.Physiological Adaptation

Question No : 38 - (Topic 1)

A diet high in fiber content can help an individual to:

A. lose body weight fast.

B. reduce diabetic ketoacidosis.

C. lower cholesterol.

D. reduce the need for folate.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Fiber-rich foods (such as grains, apples, potatoes, and beans) can help lower cholesterol. Nonpharmacological Therapies

Question No : 39 - (Topic 1)

When administering intravenous electrolyte solution, the nurse should take which of the following precautions?

A. Infuse hypertonic solutions rapidly.

B. Mix no more than 80 mEq of potassium per liter of fluid.

C. Prevent infiltration of calcium, which causes tissue necrosis and sloughing.

D. As appropriate, reevaluate the client’s digitalis dosage. He might need an increased dosage because IV calcium diminishes digitalis’s action.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Preventing tissue infiltration is important to avoid tissue necrosis. Choice 1 is incorrect because hypertonic solutions should be infused cautiously and checked with the RN if there is a concern. Choice 2 is incorrect because potassium, mixed in the pharmacy per physician order, is mixed at a concentration no higher than 60 mEq/L. Physiological Adaptation

Question No : 40 - (Topic 1)

How often should the nurse change the intravenous tubing on total parenteral nutrition solutions?

A. every 24 hours

B. every 36 hours

C. every 48 hours

D. every 72 hours

Answer: A

Explanation:

The nurse should change the intravenous tubing on total parenteral nutrition solutions every 24 hours, due to the high risk of bacterial growth. Health Promotion and Maintenance


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